Isaiah 42:1-9; 18-25

Here are my observations, findings, and comments for this week:

42:1 How should we translate the first three words of the second half of this verse? "I will give my spirit on account of him (for his sake)?" "I will place my spirit on him?" The latter translation seems more appropriate to the following context, but the Hebrew seems to allow for both possibilities.

42:2 What is the significance of this individual's failure to cry out? Does the juxtaposition of this verse with the previous one suggest the manner in which this individual will effect justice (that is, without needing to say anything)? I am totally aware of the anachronism here, but (I hate to admit it!) this verse seems difficult for me to interpret outside of Matt 12:18-28, where a typological reading of this passage provides a more certain referent than the Isaiah passage does by itself.

42:3 Here I just need to record my initial reaction: Wow, it's amazing how much I have been submersed in the New Testament. When these words are removed from their New Testament context, I have no clue to what they refer. (Don't misunderstand me, though; I know full well that the New Testament interprets these words allegorically, or allegoretically, or perhaps typologically. It's just that these words are enigmatic to me in their original context, which is perhaps why Jewish followers of Jesus could interpret them the way they do.)

42:4 (1) What does it mean that this individual will not oppress (or "mistreat") until he establishes justice on the earth? Do I have the correct meaning of this word? (Does anyone have the correct meaning?!) (2) In the second half of this verse, this individual appears to be a teacher of sorts, whereas previously, this individual seems to be primarily concerned with bringing about justice. Who is this individual?

42:5 The first half of the verse mentions YHWH's creation of the "heavens" and his activity concerning the land and plants, whereas the second half of the verse seems to be primarily concerned with human beings and, possibly, animals (in the last participle of the verse). I'm not sure if this is significant, but I seem to recall the "creation" (or "ordering") of these things being better separated in the Genesis accounts.

42:6 How can an individual be a "covenant for the people" or a "light for the nations?"

42:7 Is the action of "opening the eyes of the blind" metaphorical (i.e., those who have failed to understand will finally understand) or literal (i.e., this individual will heal those who are physically blind)?

42:8 Again, the name (and identity) of God (YHWH) appears to be in question. YHWH is the one who acts and the one who deserves praise and glory, not another (unnamed) god.

42:9 I think the divisions of this verse in Hebrew are too constraining. In the second half of the verse, the first word seems to go with the fifth word, and the second with the fifth. Why not translate them all together without the Masoretic constraints? "I who announced before the new things that have sprouted will cause you to hear." (Compare the NRSV's "See, the former things have come to pass, and new things I now declare; before they spring forth, I tell you of them.")

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42:18 Again, are these references to the deaf and blind metaphorical or literal? (By literal, I don't mean they refer to something that has or will actually happen but rather they possess a physical [corporeal?] meaning within this particular text.)

42:19 The messenger is blind and deaf?! I need to look at the greater context for this. What does kimšulläm mean?

42:20 The grammar of this verse (in particular, the use of the infinitive at the beginning of the second half of the verse) seems a little off. Ah, I just checked Waltke and O'Connor, and they give a number of passages (including this one) where the infinitive absolute is used as a finite verb. Thus, they translate this as "He opens his ears but hears nothing" (594) rather than "to open ears and he will not hear."

42:21 What does it mean to enlarge one's teaching? To me, this presumes that the teaching that exists is insufficient, so the teaching needs to be extended in order to do a better job.

42:22 Who are the people being referred to here?

42:23 When is this "time to come (later)?" What does this suggest about what this text is claiming?

42:24 There is a change of subjects here that is interesting. "We have sinned" against YHWH, but "they did not want to walk in his ways nor did they listen to (obey) his instruction." Does this reflect a culpability that extends to the present based on the behavior of a previous generation? The present generation, one presumes, is (the author hopes!) willing to walk in the ways of YHWH and obey his instruction.

42:25 Who is the "him" being referred to here, and why did he receive YHWH's wrath and anger? And why was he so impervious to its effects?